DUnlimited
got any popo lolo intersting?
+1,160|6919|cuntshitlake

Bertster7 wrote:

Of course it is. A calculator can't deal with infinite answers. The doesn't stop it from being the case. 0 multiplied by infinity is also equal to 1 (which can be seen in delta functions - which have infinite height, zero width and an area of unity - I used to have to use them all the time for Fourier, Laplace and Z Transforms).
nope. any number, even infinity, multiplied by 0 is 0. If the text I bolded would be true, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a 2d figure. Not happening.

Also, a calculator could draw a mark for the infinite ( ∞ ), if your statement would be true

Last edited by DeathUnlimited (2007-04-02 14:02:23)

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heggs
Spamalamadingdong
+581|6844|New York
It is undefined because the number goes to infinity.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dividing_by_zero

for lim x->0 1/x, as x approaches 0, y approaches infinity, not 1. Now, keep in mind, this is on a situational basis. as you have different equations and different limits, you will get different answers.

Last edited by heggs (2007-04-02 14:13:12)

Remember Me As A Time Of Day
Ninja_Kid2002
Member
+119|6723|Floodsville, TN, (UK really)

too_money2007 wrote:

DeathUnlimited wrote:

(x - 1)/(x - 1) = (x - 1)(x + 1)/(x - 1)

You can't divide by zero
Well, you technically can. 100/0 = 100, because you're not really dividing 100 by anything. Right?
divide anythig by 2, its half itself (100/2 = 50)
divide anything by 1, it's itself (100/1 = 100)
divide anything by 0 its infinity (100/0 = Infinity)

That's were your shit goes wrong
Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|7037|SE London

DeathUnlimited wrote:

Bertster7 wrote:

Of course it is. A calculator can't deal with infinite answers. The doesn't stop it from being the case. 0 multiplied by infinity is also equal to 1 (which can be seen in delta functions - which have infinite height, zero width and an area of unity - I used to have to use them all the time for Fourier, Laplace and Z Transforms).
nope. any number, even infinity, multiplied by 0 is 0. If the text I bolded would be true, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a 2d figure. Not happening.

Also, a calculator could draw a mark for the infinite ( ∞ ), if your statement would be true
0 multiplied by infinity is 1.

https://upload.wikimedia.org/math/e/e/4/ee47e059eb6d456826987afa8547104d.png
https://upload.wikimedia.org/math/1/4/3/14323c583ede5a758cf23c07bd85aad2.png
DUnlimited
got any popo lolo intersting?
+1,160|6919|cuntshitlake

Bertster7 wrote:

DeathUnlimited wrote:

Bertster7 wrote:

Of course it is. A calculator can't deal with infinite answers. The doesn't stop it from being the case. 0 multiplied by infinity is also equal to 1 (which can be seen in delta functions - which have infinite height, zero width and an area of unity - I used to have to use them all the time for Fourier, Laplace and Z Transforms).
nope. any number, even infinity, multiplied by 0 is 0. If the text I bolded would be true, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a 2d figure. Not happening.

Also, a calculator could draw a mark for the infinite ( ∞ ), if your statement would be true
0 multiplied by infinity is 1.

http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/e/e/4/ … 47104d.png
http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/1/4/3/ … 85aad2.png
No. a line is not a rectangle.

Last edited by DeathUnlimited (2007-04-02 14:58:37)

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Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|7037|SE London

DeathUnlimited wrote:

Bertster7 wrote:

DeathUnlimited wrote:

nope. any number, even infinity, multiplied by 0 is 0. If the text I bolded would be true, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a 2d figure. Not happening.

Also, a calculator could draw a mark for the infinite ( ∞ ), if your statement would be true
0 multiplied by infinity is 1.

http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/e/e/4/ … 47104d.png
http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/1/4/3/ … 85aad2.png
No. a line is not a retangle.
No one is saying it is. You just don't seem to understand what you're talking about. Something with a width of zero would not be a line in any case - although that is how the function is represented.

I spent years using delta functions all the time at uni for signals analysis, they are a spike on a graph with an infinite height, a width of 0 and an area of 1.

Last edited by Bertster7 (2007-04-02 15:02:32)

DUnlimited
got any popo lolo intersting?
+1,160|6919|cuntshitlake

if 0 multiplied by infinite is 1, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a Rectangle (2d).

Because Lines don't have area.

I won't argue more than that, since you clearly are educated in this more, but that is how I get it.


Afterall I was the one who got the right answer on the first page

Last edited by DeathUnlimited (2007-04-02 15:06:06)

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Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|7037|SE London

DeathUnlimited wrote:

if 0 multiplied by infinite is 1, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a Rectangle (2d).

Because Lines don't have area.

I won't argue more than that, since you clearly are educated in this more, but that is how I get it.


Afterall I was the one who got the right answer on the first page
Hope this clears it up a bit.

The Dirac delta or Dirac's delta, often referred to as the unit impulse function and introduced by the British theoretical physicist Paul Dirac, can usually be informally thought of as a function δ(x) that has the value of infinity for x = 0 and the value zero elsewhere. The integral of the Dirac delta from any negative limit to any positive limit is 1.
The integral is essentially the area.

It's not a rectangle or a line. It's an inconceivable thing that could never exist - it's just a mathematical concept that is usefull for solving stuff.
DUnlimited
got any popo lolo intersting?
+1,160|6919|cuntshitlake

Bertster7 wrote:

DeathUnlimited wrote:

if 0 multiplied by infinite is 1, then a line (1d) which has infinite length would be a Rectangle (2d).

Because Lines don't have area.

I won't argue more than that, since you clearly are educated in this more, but that is how I get it.


Afterall I was the one who got the right answer on the first page
Hope this clears it up a bit.

The Dirac delta or Dirac's delta, often referred to as the unit impulse function and introduced by the British theoretical physicist Paul Dirac, can usually be informally thought of as a function δ(x) that has the value of infinity for x = 0 and the value zero elsewhere. The integral of the Dirac delta from any negative limit to any positive limit is 1.
The integral is essentially the area.

It's not a rectangle or a line. It's an inconceivable thing that could never exist - it's just a mathematical concept that is usefull for solving stuff.
Oooo-kay.. clear now..

*hides in a corner ashamed of his fighting for nothing*

main battle tank karthus medikopter 117 megamegapowershot gg
heggs
Spamalamadingdong
+581|6844|New York
in any event, bertser7, deathunlimited and i win for understanding what the argument was about. for what it's worth, we were all right about different things.
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De_Jappe
Triarii
+432|6983|Belgium

0 * infinity is NOT 1...
0 * infinity is the same as InfinityX / (1 / 0) = InfinityX/InfinityY

This is only 1 if infinityX = infinityY
WHICH is rarely the case.

The limit of this problem could also be 2 or 3. Just use L'Hopital to find out.
Ryan
Member
+1,230|7298|Alberta, Canada

Teh answer is 42!
duranddurad
Member
+1|6694
damn Ryan ure good......but no the fundamental error of this problem was already stated by DeathUlimited u cant have x=1 AND x+1=1 because its "x" in both cases and if x=1 then u replace ure "x" to get 1+1=1 which only takes a grade 2 kid to know is wrong.

How did this go to using calculus 2 and integrals to find area?
De_Jappe
Triarii
+432|6983|Belgium

duranddurad wrote:

damn Ryan ure good......but no the fundamental error of this problem was already stated by DeathUlimited u cant have x=1 AND x+1=1 because its "x" in both cases and if x=1 then u replace ure "x" to get 1+1=1 which only takes a grade 2 kid to know is wrong.

How did this go to using calculus 2 and integrals to find area?
Well the trick was not to see that 1=2 is wrong, but find the wrong thinking method along the way that lead to this result.

This was of course dividing by x-1 and assuming that x = 1 which means dividing by 0 which is not allowed. (as number/0 = infinity)

For those having trouble imagining that 10/0 is very large, try this method:

10/2 = 5
10/1 = 10
10/0.5 = 20
10/0.01 = 1000
10/0.000001 = 10000000
...
the closer you get to zero, the bigger the number. So dividing by 0 gives an infinite big number as result

Last edited by De_Jappe (2007-04-02 15:43:18)

Masques
Black Panzer Party
+184|7178|Eastern PA

De_Jappe wrote:

0 * infinity is NOT 1...
0 * infinity is the same as InfinityX / (1 / 0) = InfinityX/InfinityY

This is only 1 if infinityX = infinityY
WHICH is rarely the case.

The limit of this problem could also be 2 or 3. Just use L'Hopital to find out.
The argument Bertster presented is a bit beyond that.

In any case, as per what you posted: If infinity = 1/0, then 0*(1/0) = 1.
Canadian_Sniper_X
Member
+45|6944|Kamloops, BC Canada
Whoa guys... I go to school for a couple hours and this happens.

DeathUnlimited got it right first.

So he gets the Karma... simple as that.

I admit... I definitely laughed at 100/0 = 100 (whoever wrote that)



p.s. I don't know if anyone already mentioned this but INFINITE is a CONCEPT. Not a number. So you cannot apply simple algebra to it.

Last edited by Canadian_Sniper_X (2007-04-02 16:40:41)

heggs
Spamalamadingdong
+581|6844|New York

Canadian_Sniper_X wrote:

p.s. I don't know if anyone already mentioned this but INFINITE is a CONCEPT. Not a number. So you cannot apply simple algebra to it.
that's what a few of us have been saying all along.
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mcminty
Moderating your content for the Australian Govt.
+879|7177|Sydney, Australia

Bertster7 wrote:

too_money2007 wrote:

DeathUnlimited wrote:

(x - 1)/(x - 1) = (x - 1)(x + 1)/(x - 1)

You can't divide by zero
Well, you technically can. 100/0 = 100, because you're not really dividing 100 by anything. Right?
Yes, technically you can. But 100/0 != 100. It will equal infinity, as will any number divided by zero. Something divided by nothing is always infinite.
Infinity, or undefined.


For example, say you are graphing

F(x)=2/(3-x)
There is an asymptote at x=3 because at that point, the graph is undefined.



Someone else explained it better...

Mcminty.
De_Jappe
Triarii
+432|6983|Belgium

Masques wrote:

De_Jappe wrote:

0 * infinity is NOT 1...
0 * infinity is the same as InfinityX / (1 / 0) = InfinityX/InfinityY

This is only 1 if infinityX = infinityY
WHICH is rarely the case.

The limit of this problem could also be 2 or 3. Just use L'Hopital to find out.
The argument Bertster presented is a bit beyond that.

In any case, as per what you posted: If infinity = 1/0, then 0*(1/0) = 1.
Dude, read my post, infinity is NOT the same as infinity in another example.
0* infinity is NOT defined (just as infinity/infinity). Please go back to school, We have learned that here when I was 15 oke?
You have to use the rule of l'hopital depending on the problem to find out what the limit is.
Oke so please grab a math book before trying to convince me the other way.

Or to make it easier to understand:
1/0 = infinity
2/0 = infinity
3/0 = infinity
10/0 = infinity

So 0*infinity is NOT always 0*(1/0), therefor 0*infinity is not 1, but NOT DEFINED. It depends on each problem.

Last edited by De_Jappe (2007-04-03 06:21:00)

kylef
Gone
+1,352|6949|N. Ireland
..which is why:

x^0 = 1
4754375438383^0 = 1

always.
bennisboy
Member
+829|7102|Poundland

De_Jappe wrote:

Masques wrote:

De_Jappe wrote:

0 * infinity is NOT 1...
0 * infinity is the same as InfinityX / (1 / 0) = InfinityX/InfinityY

This is only 1 if infinityX = infinityY
WHICH is rarely the case.

The limit of this problem could also be 2 or 3. Just use L'Hopital to find out.
The argument Bertster presented is a bit beyond that.

In any case, as per what you posted: If infinity = 1/0, then 0*(1/0) = 1.
Dude, read my post, infinity is NOT the same as infinity in another example.
0* infinity is NOT defined (just as infinity/infinity). Please go back to school, We have learned that here when I was 15 oke?
You have to use the rule of l'hopital depending on the problem to find out what the limit is.
Oke so please grab a math book before trying to convince me the other way.

Or to make it easier to understand:
1/0 = infinity
2/0 = infinity
3/0 = infinity
10/0 = infinity

So 0*infinity is NOT always 0*(1/0), therefor 0*infinity is not 1, but NOT DEFINED. It depends on each problem.
I agree, I was told a few months ago my my maths teacher that anything divided by 0 is undefined, not infinity
jkohlc
2142th Whore
+214|6982|Singapore
x = 1

x^2 = 1

Therefore,

x= 1 or -1

x =/= x^2

Last edited by jkohlc (2007-04-03 07:52:30)

heggs
Spamalamadingdong
+581|6844|New York
But, keep in mind, when taking the limit of something that yields expression/0, you will get infinity as your answer.

Last edited by heggs (2007-04-03 07:56:30)

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The Magic Mullet
Member
+240|6880
My cats name is Mittens.
Sniper-UK-Ghost
Ice Lolly Maniac
+30|6690|Bristol

The Magic Mullet wrote:

My cats name is Mittens.
kinky

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