Bertster7 wrote:
FEOS wrote:
The post by the author included only discussion of war crimes for the Gaza operation. Period. It was not at all "open", but it was quite brief. Perhaps if it had been less brief and more open, it would have included issues not related to the Gaza operation. But it didn't.
The post by the author did not even mention Gaza. The article he quoted did, but there was nothing in the OP restricting discussion to that. I took the article as an example - as I am sure it was intended to be. Just because you have seen the word Gaza mentioned, does not limit the scope of discussion to that.
Sure. Why wouldn't you automatically assume that any mention of warcrimes--when the linked article was about Gaza (and there were no others linked to imply any other location was under discussion)--that it was about any Israeli action anywhere in history? I mean, it's not like there are other articles out there from past conflicts that could have been used to open up the discussion beyond Gaza.
Extrapolate all you want. It's crystal clear what the focus of the OP was.
Bertster7 wrote:
FEOS wrote:
Who ever said their reports were invalid? I said you have to take in more than just that information to make the decision. How can you determine either negligence or intent simply by looking at one side of the issue? You can't. That's all I'm saying.
So now you're backtracking?
First you claim those on the receiving end are not eyewitnesses and their testimony is irrelevant - which IS what you said. Now you say their statements are valid, but make up only a part of the case - which is obviously so, in most instances.
That's not at all what I said. Maybe you should go back and actually read what I wrote. Nowhere did I say the testimony of those on the receiving end is irrelevant. I said it is an incomplete picture of the entire story.
And those on the receiving end are not "eyewitnesses", as they did not witness what would, in fact, make the actions a warcrime (at least when it comes to shelling or bombing)...and that is intent in the decision-makers to willfully strike a purely civilian target. They didn't witness that. Couldn't have witnessed that. Therefore, they are not "eyewitnesses" to warcrimes.
Bertster7 wrote:
In many cases you can determine negligence or intent by looking at one side of the issue. WP being a perfect example. If you have vast numbers of civilians admitted to hospital with WP burns (something easily verifiable), then it has clearly been used in civilian areas - especially if that evidence is backed up with the shell casings which have been found in civilian areas. How can there be any question of that whatsoever? That's entirely about what happened at the point of impact. If the point of impact is a civilian area, it should not be happening. It's that simple. The decisions that led up to the firing, in such an instance, are irrelevant - until the time comes to direct blame more specifically. Even if Hamas were firing from the location targeted, then returning fire with WP rounds is not an acceptable (or legal) option.
WP has legal uses, which are the ones the IDF claimed it used. But you can't believe that side without further investigation, either.
It's entirely plausible that the legal, lawful, use of WP in Gaza resulted in civilian casualties. Simply seeing the horrific results of its use does not automatically make its use illegal.
You must have the other side of the story to make that determination. Period.
There are NO cases where you can determine negligence or intent by looking ONLY at one side of the issue--unless an illegal weapon (like chemical weapons) is used. End of story.